It is now taken as an article of truth that Ortiz drove him to suicide. Is there any direct evidence that he did it because of the prosecution or is it only assumed?
Not sure what the purpose of that question is as it seems fairly obvious that without Aaron around it would be impossible to prove with 100% certainty that the suicide was due to the prosecution.
However, I am sure you agree that it is highly-likely due to the aggressive nature of the prosecution and voiced opinions by his family and friends that this was having a very negative affect on his emotional well-being. That might be conjecture but it's better conjecture than believing he committed suicide for no new reason.
edit; I noticed you just down-voted me; I understand it's difficult to deal with being called out online. That said, I would like to point out that your implication that the burden of proof should be on proving Ortiz has some responsibility for his suicide in your insinuation that ”It's now taken as an article of truth that Ortiz drove [Aaron] to suicide” is false. There has been a lot more evidence that there the prosecution was over-reaching and that Swartz was affected negatively by this than there has been otherwise. Obviously your intention by asking that question was to create an easily discredited strawman and perhaps it's a shame I gave you the benefit of doubt when I responded...
Most of what I've read approaches hagiography. I can't help but wonder if some of the fawning praise heaped upon him, and his elevation to a hero partaking in an epic battle between Good and Evil was no less a contribution to his death than the supposed bullying of the prosecutor.
